faq for online test for AIEEE

What is Online examination (CBT Mode) ?		It is a Computer based test which will be conducted online using the Local Area Network (LAN) to make this safe,secure and un-interupted.
2	How to apply and what is the last date of applying for online exam ?		Through AIEEE website (http://aieee.nic.in). The last date is 31st December 2011.
3	Is online examination based on Internet?		No
4	When will online examination be conducted?		The planned scheduled is between 7th May to 26th May 2012
5	What will be the time of online examination ?		The exam will be twice a day I.e. in two shifts. One shift from 9.00 AM to 12.00 PM and another one from 2.00 PM to 5.00 PM
6	What computer knowledge is required to appear for Online examination (CBT Mode) ?		The candidate need to know only how to operate computer mouse. That is all required.
7	What are the advantages in opting for online mode of examination ?		You will get the flexibility in choosing the exam date (between 7th May and 26th May) of your choice as per your convenience. You will also get the choice of your shift (9 AM to 12 PM / 2 PM to 5 PM) based on your convenience. It will make you feel confident on use of Information technology. You can also save upto Rs. 300 in Exam fees compare to Offline modeNote: The flexibility of choosing date and shift will also depend on availability of seat on that particular day/shift. This option shell be made available in the month of January 2012.
8	Can the date of exam once selected be changed, if required ?		No
9	What will be the medium of Online examination ?		Medium of examination is English and Hindi both. You can also switch medium as many times as you want during the examination as every question will apprear both in English and Hindi.
10	Can I get a examination center of my choice?		You can opt for city of your choice as per list of online exam cities at the time of filling application form only.
11	How secure is the Online examination?		It is very secure as human intervention is minimal
12	How can I practice for Online examination ?		You can practice free of cost throught webbased mock test which will be available on CBSE website soon. This will give you actual idea of the format of Online Exam (Computer Based Test I.e.CBT mode).
13	What will happen in case there is some problem in computer during the examination ?		There will be enough buffer systems available in the examination center to take care of such problems and time lost in change of system will be duly taken care as each and every second will be recorded by the server.
14	When will the result of Online examination be declared?		Combined result will be declared alongwith the offline examination candidates.
15	Will there be a question booklet like in offline examination?		In Online (CBT mode) exam the questions will appear on computer screen along with the answer options. Instruction page will also be displayed before the actual test begins.The time of reading of instructions will not be part of examination duration.
16	Will I get the paper of online examination as we get in Offline exam?		Yes, the paper will be mailed to you after the exam schedule is over.
17	In case of problem in computer etc will there be some body to assist ?		Yes
18	How will I answere a question in the Online examination?		There will four options of each question. You have to click one of the options using your computer mouse which can be reviewed or re-answered any time during the duration of the examination
19	How will I come to know which are the questions left unanswered?		There will be a panel on computer screen showing all the question nos in different colour scheme which will indicate which are the questions answered, left un answered and marked for review.
20	Can I change my answer ?		Yes during the exam duration and it is one of the most important feature of online examination.
21	If I have selected medium of question paper as English but want to see question in Hindi for more clarity or vice-a-versa, is this possible ?		Yes you can easily do with the click of computer mouse.
22	Will I be getting some practice test ? If yes, than how and when ?		Yes , very soon you will get mock test software downloadble from CBSE / AIEEE website
23	Is online Examination for B.E. and B.Tech only ?		Yes
24	If I want to opt for both B.E./B.Tech and B.Planning/B.Arch from city of online exam, than how will I appear for B.Arch/B Planning exam		Your B.E./B.Tech Exam will be conducted in online mode and B.Planning/B.Arch in offline mode in the same city.
25	Will I get sheets/papers for rough work/calculations etc ?		Yes very much.
26	Will there be call centre support ?		Yes. There will be call centre support for candidates appearing in online examination.
27	When will I have to report at exam centre ?		One and half hour before the exam time.

D-BLOCK ELEMENTS FOR CBSE

Crystal Field Theory,D-block elements notes for CBSE

Crystal Field Theory
This theory was proposed after valence bond approach and was more useful. It assumes that the attraction between the central metal and the ligands in a complex is purely electrostatic. The transition metal which is the central atom is a positive ion of charge equal to the oxidation state. This is surrounded by negative ligands and the attraction is electrostatic. If the ligand is a neutral molecule  like NH3 or H2O the negative end of the dipole is attracted towards the central positive ion. The electrons of the central metal are under repulsive forces from those on the ligands. Therefore, the electrons occupy the ‘d’ orbitals farthest away from the direction of approach of ligands.
The ‘d’ orbitals can be divided into two groups depending upon the nature of their orientation in space. One group (dxy, dxz, dyz) consists of three orbitals oriented in region in between the coordinate axes (also called as dÎ or t2g) whereas the other group comprises two orbitals  (also called dg or eg) oriented along the axes. In the case of a free central ion, all the ‘d’ orbitals have the same energy and are degenerate. On the approach of ligands, the energy of the ‘d’ orbitals lying in the direction of ligands is raised to a larger extent than that of the orbitals lying in between the ligands. The rise in energy is due to the repulsion between the electrons of the central ion and those of ligands. The conversion of five degenerate ‘d’ orbitals of the metal ion into two sets of orbitals having different energies is called crystal field splitting or energy level splitting. The concept forms the basis of crystal field theory.
In an isolated gaseous metal ion, the five ‘d’ orbitals have the same energy and are termed as degenerate. If a spherically symmetrical field of negative charges of ligands surrounds the metal ion, the ‘d’ orbitals remain degenerate. However, the energy of the orbital is raised because of repulsion between the field and the electrons on the metal. In most of the transition metal complexes, either six or four ligands surround the metal giving octahedral or tetrahedral structures. In both of these cases, the field produced by the ligands is not spherically symmetrical and the ‘d’ orbitals are not equally affected by the ligand field.It should be noted that when a charge is repelled by a similar charge, the potential energy of the system increases. The greater the repulsion, the greater the increase in energy.
In an octahedral complex, the metal is at the centre of the octahedron and the ligands are at the six corners. The directions x, y, z point to three adjacent corners of the octahedron as shown above in the figure. The lobes of eg orbitals  point along the axes x, y and z. The lobes of t2g orbitals (dxy, dxz and dyz) point in between the axes. The approach of six ligands along the x, y, z and –x, –y and –z directions will increase the energy of   and orbitals much more than it increases the energy of the xxy, dxz and dyz orbitals (which point between the axes). Thus, under the influence of an octahedral ligand field, the ‘d’ orbitals split into two groups of different energies.
Instead of considering the energy level of an isolated metal atom, the weighted mean of the two sets of perturbed orbitals is taken as zero. This is called as the ‘Bari centre’ or this may also be considered as the average energy of the metal ion under the hypothetical degeneracy of all the orbitals at a higher energy level if all the ligands approaching the central ion are at an equal distance from each of the ‘d’ orbital.

The difference in energy between the two ‘d’ levels is represented by D0 or 10 Dq. It follows that the eg orbitals are +0.6 D0 above the average level and t2g orbitals are –0.4 D0 below the average level. D0 for various complexes can be measured by UV/visible spectrum. For example, in (Ti(H2O)6]3+, Ti3+ has one ‘d’ electron and in complex it occupies the orbital with lowest energy, that is, one of the t2g orbitals. The
d-d transition spectral data provides the value of D0 = 243 KJ mole–1.
Because of crystal field splitting of ‘d’ orbitals, the single ‘d’ electron in [Ti(H2O)6]3+ occupies an energy level 2/5 D0 = (0.4 D0) below the average energy of the ‘d’ orbitals. Naturally, the complex is more stable and the CFSE (crystal field stabilisation energy) in this case = 2/5 D0 or 2/5 ´ 243 = 97 KJ.mol–1.
Ligands that cause only a small degree of crystal field splitting are termed as weak field ligands. Ligands that cause a large splitting are strong field ligands. Following is the list of ligands arranged in an ascending order of crystal field splitting. The order remains practically constant for different metals.
I– < Br– < S2– < Cl– < NO3– < F– < OH– < H2O < EDTA < NH3 < NO2– < CN– < CO
Weak field ligands Strong field ligands
Complexes with d2 configuration of a metal will have a crystal field stabilisation energy
(CFSE) = 2 ´ –0.4 D0 = –0.8 D0 and complexes of d3 metal ions have CFSE = 3 ´ –0.4 D0 = –1.2 D0.

engineering entrance exam

engineering entrance exam

In India engineering entrance exam is extremely popular between class 12 students and every year approximately 35 lack students are preparing for different engineering entrance with all about 70000 seats of BTech .   in the year 1999 the aspirant of engineering entrance will have to go for so many engineering entrance which includes state level and national level to solve this problem Government of India vide Resolution dated 18th October 2001 has laid down a Three-Exam Scheme (JEE and AIEEE at the National Level and the State Level Engineering EntranceExaminations (SLEEE) for State Level Institutions with an option to join AIEEE). One must go through the details of the entrance exam like eligibility, pattern of exam all details are given by entrancei.com expert to their site entrancei.com This takes care of varying admission standards in these programmes and helps in maintenance of professional standards. This also solves problems of overlaps and reduces physical, mental and financial burden on students and their parents due to multiplicity of entrance examinations. Now a days the most common and popular engineering entrance exam are AIEEE (for admission in NIT) and IITJEE .apart from the two engineering entrance exam some of the college conduct their own entrance exam.

How to prepare for engineering entrance exam? The answer of this question lays in the subject area all most all engineering entrance exam asks questions based on three subject Physics, chemistry and mathematics. so the aspirant must give all his/her focus on these three subjects . for the better understanding in PCM one must read good books prefer foreign author books for theory and do as many as numerical as you can. Entrancei understand the need and requirement of the subjects so the expert of entrancei provides all the study material and more than 75000 question bank in entrancei.com. Time management during the preparation is again a point of discussion for engineering entrance exam the best time for the preparation of engineering entrance exam is when a student starts his/her class XI. When a student start preparation from class XI he gets complete two years for the preparation, if one thinks the time is enough for the preparation of good engineering entrance exam than he is doing mistake. For the engineering entrance exam one have to prepare three subjects and the total chapters in three subject are approximately 85 now in the two years of time you have to prepare all 85 topics . lets talk about the total time you have 730days and in this days total hours with you are 4380 we have calculated this time by taking 6 hours per day as you spend 6 hours per day for the preparation of you entrance exam now the time you will get for each topic is 51.52 hours and this time is not more than enough but one can say sufficient time the only factor count is consistence in the work for two years. so be committed before the start you subject preparation  .

TRICKS TO GET GOOD RANK IN IITJEE

How to get good rank in IITJEE,AIEEE and other entrance exam

1.      Sleep less. This is one of the best investments you can make to make your life more
productive and rewarding. Most people do not need more than 6 hours to maintain an
excellent state of health. Try getting up one hour earlier for 21 days and it will develop
into a powerful habit. Remember, it is the quality not the quantity of sleep that is
important. And just imagine having an extra 30 hours a month to spend on the things that
are important to you.

2. Set aside one hour every morning for personal development matters. Meditate, visualize
your day, read inspirational texts to set the tone of your day, listen to motivational tapes
or read great literature. Take this quiet period to vitalize and energize your spirit for the
productive day ahead. Watch the sun rise once a week or be with nature. Starting the day
off well is a powerful strategy for self-renewal and personal effectiveness.

3. Do not allow those things that matter the most in your life be at the mercy of activities
that matter the least. Every day, take the time to ask yourself the question "is this the best
use of my time and energy?" Time management is life management so guard your time
with great care.

4. Use the rubber band method to condition your mind to focus solely on the most positive
elements in your life. Place a rubber band around your wrist. Each time a negative,
energy sapping thought enters your mind, snap the rubber band. Through the power of
conditioning, your mind will associate pain with negative thinking and you will soon
possess a strongly positive mindset.

5. Always answer the phone with enthusiasm in your voice and show your appreciation for
the caller. Good phone manners are essential. To convey authority on the line, stand up.
This will instill further confidence in your voice.

6. Throughout the day we all get inspiration and excellent ideas. Keep a set of cards (the
size of business cards; available at most stationary stores) in your wallet along with a
pencil to jot down these insights. When you get home, put the ideas in a central place
such as a coil notepad and review them from time to time. As noted by Oliver Wendell
Holmes: "Man's mind, once stretched by a new idea, never regains its original
dimensions."

7. Set aside every Sunday evening for yourself and be strongly disciplined with this habit.
Use this period to plan your week, visualize your encounters and what you want to
achieve, to read new materials and inspirational books, to listen to soft soothing music
and to simply relax. This habit will serve as your anchor to keep you focused, motivated
and effective throughout the coming week.

8. Always remember the key principle that the quality of your life is the quality of your
communication. This means the way you communicate with others and, more
importantly, the way you communicate with yourself. What you focus on is what you get.
If you look for the positive this is what you get. This is a fundamental law of Nature.

9. Stay on purpose, not on outcome. In other words, do the task because it is what you love
to do or because it will help someone or is a valuable exercise. Don't do it for the money
or the recognition. Those will come naturally. This is the way of the world.

10. Laugh for five minutes in the mirror each morning. Steve Martin does. Laughter activates
many beneficial chemicals within the body that place us into a very joyous state.
Laughter also returns the body to a state of balance. Laughter therapy has been regularly
used to heal persons with varied ailments and is a wonderful tonic for life's ills. While the
average 4 year old laughs 500 times a day, the average adult is lucky to laugh 15 times a
day. Revitalize the habit of laughter, it will put far more living into your life.

pattern of IITJEE, about JEE, facts about IIT JEE COMPTITION

pattern of IITJEE, about JEE, facts about IIT JEE COMPTITION

The Indian Institutes of Technology (popularly known as IITs) are institutions of national importance established through an Act of Parliament for fostering excellence in education. In the present article I am going to give all input and requirements needed to qualify the most popular JEE conducted by IIT for the admission of B-Tech courses? There are fifteen IITs at present, located inBhubaneswar, Chennai, Delhi, Gandhinagar, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Indore, Jodhpur, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Mandi, Mumbai, Patna, Ropar and Roorkee. Over the years IITs have created world class educational platforms dynamically sustained through internationally recognized research based on excellent infrastructural facilities. The faculty and alumni of IITs continue making huge impact in all sectors of society, both in India and abroad. JEE 2011 will be conducted on 10th April 2011= in 131 cities all over India in 1051 centers for 4,85,262 registered candidates.

Before proceeding to explain the preparation of IIT JEE let us first understand the type of competition which a aspirant have to face, have a look to some facts of IIT JEE 2011

No. of students appeared =4.85 lacks

No. of serious students     =50-60K

No. of students qualified =10000

Maximum Marks =480

Marks of the topper =434

Cut of marks =229 (merit list cut off)

Percentage of topper and last rank holder =90.54% and 47.77%

So from the above facts one can understand that all ranks in IITJEE lie between 90%-47% .the points is how to be in this range, for that one must have a better understanding of the question paper difficulty level and the pattern

IIT JEE PAPER-I

IIT JEE CHEMISTRY from class XI-30% question, from class XII 70% question   now from topics wise inorganic chemistry, organic chemistry and physical chemistry consist of 26%, 32% and 42% respectively. Now coming on to the difficulty level of the chapters if we segregate the paper in three part difficult, moderate and easy the percentage of question is 18,28 and 34 percentage respectively.

IIT JEE PHYSICS from class XI-42% question, from class XII 38% question   now from topics wise modern physics13%, mechanics 19%, heat and thermodynamic 16%electrodyanamics 25%wave and oscillation 7%. Now coming on to the difficulty level of the chapters if we segregate the paper in three part difficult, moderate and easy the percentage of question is 19,34 and 27 percentage respectively.

IIT JEE MATHEMATICS from class XI-42% question, from class XII 38% question   now from topics wise 3-D vector 7%, trigonometry 7%, algebra37%, and cooridanate 34%, calculus34% respectively. Now coming on to the difficulty level of the chapters if we segregate the paper in three part difficult, moderate and easy the percentage of question is 12,40 and 28 percentage respectively.

Above is the analysis of paper-I of IITJEE held on 2011 paper –II analysis you can get from entrancei. in first paper  of IITJEE the total number of questions are approximately 69 and from each subject 23 question are asked ,the paper –I and paper-II both consist of integer type of question and the total number of integer type of question approximately are 36 means IIT increase the weight in integral type question . the different type of question  asked in IITJEE are single choice correct objective, more than one choice ,integral type and match the following (only in paper-II) .

sample paper for CBSE chemistry

sample paper for chemistry,cbse sample paper,IITJEE chemistry sample paper,questions for chemistry,cbse chemistry

                      sample paper for chemistry

sample paper-i

                                                      (Single correct Answer Type)

1.            Among the following, the most acidic is

                (A)  p-nitrophenol                                                            (B)  p-hydroxybenzoic acid

                (C)  o-hydroxybenzoic acid                                          (D)  p-toluic acid

Sol.         (C)

               

2.            Extra pure N₂ can be obtained by heating

                (A)  NH₃ with CuO                                                            (B)  NH₄NO₃

                (C)  (NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇                                                                (D)  Ba(N₃)₂

ans.        (D)

3.            Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni²⁺ with Cl^-, CN^- and H₂O, respectively, are 

                (A)  octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar    (B)  tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral

                (C)  square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral    (D)  octahedral, square planar and octahedral

ans.        (B)

4.            Bombardment of aluminium by a-particle leads to its artificial disintegration in two ways, (i) and (ii) as shown. Products X, Y and Z respectively are

               

                (A)  proton, neutron, positron                                    (B)  neutron, positron, proton

                (C)  proton, positron, neutron                                    (D)  positron, proton, neutron

ans.        (A)

5.            Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is

                (A)  1.78 M                                                                          (B)  2.00 M

                (C)  2.05 M                                                                          (D)  2.22 M

ans.        (C)

               

Multiple Correct Answer Type

                

6.            The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)

                (A)  Adsorption is always exothermic

                (B)  Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature

                (C)  Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing temperature

                (D)  Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher energy of activation.

ans.        (A, D)

7.            Extraction of metal form the ore cassiterite involves

                (A)  carbon reduction of an oxide ore                      (B)  self-reduction of a sulphide ore

                (C)  removal of copper impurity                                 (D)  removal of iron impurity

ans.        (A, C, D)

8.          According to kinetic theory of gases

                (A)  collisions are always elastic

                (B) heavier molecules transfer more momentum to the wall of the container.

                (C)  only a small number of molecules have very high velocity

                (D)  between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities.

ans.        (A, B, C, D)

9.          Amongst the given options, the compound(s) in which all the atoms are in one plane in all the possible conformations (if any), is (are)

                (A)                                                         (B) 

                (C)                                                             (D) 

ans.        (B, C)

               

(Paragraph Type)

                This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based upon the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questionshave to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices A), B), C), D) out of whichONLY ONE is correct.

                                                              

                When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of compound N, the solution turns light blue. Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives a white precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH₃ dissolves O and gives an intense blue solution.

10.          The metal rod M is

                (A)  Fe                                                                                   (B)  Cu

                (C)  Ni                                                                                    (D)  Co

ans.        (B)

11.          The compound N is

                (A)  AgNO₃                                                                          (B)  Zn(NO₃)₂

                (C)  Al(NO₃)₃                                                                       (D)  Pb(NO₃)₂

ans.        (A)

               

12.          The final solution contains

                (A)  [Pb(NH₃)₄]²⁺ and [CoCl₄]^2-                                    (B)  [Al(NH₃)₄]³⁺ and [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺

                (C)  [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ and [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺                              (D)  [Ag(NH₃)₂⁺ and [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺

ans.        (C)

               

(Integer Answer Type)

               

*13.       The total number of alkenes possible by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is

Sol.         5

14.          A decapetide (Mol. Wt. 796) on complete hydrolysis gives glycine (Mol. Wt. 75), alanine and phenylalanine. Glycine contributes 47.0 % to the total weight of the hydrolysed products. The number of glycine units present in the decapeptide is

Ans..      6

15.          To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under external pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mol of He and 1.0 mol an unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm. at 0^oC) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas behaviour, the volume (in litre) of the gasses at 0^oC is close to

ans.        7

16.          The work function (f) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is 

Metal	Li	Na	K	Mg	Cu	Ag	Fe	Pt	W
f (eV)	2.4	2.3	2.2	3.7	4.8	4.3	4.7	6.3	4.75

ans.        4

17.          The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3, and spin quantum number, m_s = , is

ans.        9

18.          Reaction of Br₂ with Na₂CO₃ in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium bromate with evolution of CO₂ gas. The number of sodium bromide molecules involved in the balanced chemical equation is

ans.        5

19.          The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na₂S₄O₆ is

Ans….    5

                                               sample paper for chemistry

sample paper-ii

(Single correct Answer Type)

                

1.            Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively are

                (A)  II, III in haematite and III in magnetite

                (B)  II, III in haematite and II in magnetite

                (C)  II in haematite and II, III in magnetite

                (D)  III in haematite and II, III in magnetite

Sol.         (D)

2.            Among the following complexes (K-P)

                K₃[Fe(CN)₆] (K), [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ (L), Na₃[Co(oxalate)₃] (M), [Ni(H₂O)₆]Cl₂ (N),

                K₂[Pt(CN)₄] (O) and [Zn(H₂O)₆] (NO₃)₂ (P)

                the diamagnetic complexes are

                (A)  K L, M, N                                                                      (B)  K, M, O, P

                (C)  L, M, O, P                                                                     (D)  L, M, N, O

Sol.         (C) 

3.            Passing H₂S gas into a mixture of Mn²⁺, Ni²⁺, Cu²⁺ and Hg²⁺ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates

                (A)  CuS and HgS                                                               (B)  MnS and CuS

                (C)  MnS and NiS                                                              (D)  NiS and HgS

Sol.         (A)

               

4.            The freezing point (in ^oC) of a solution containing 0.1 g of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] (Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of water (K_f = 1.86 K Kg mol^-1) is

                (A)  -2.3 ´ 10^-2                                                                  (B)  -5.7 ´ 10^-2

                (C)  -5.7 ´ 10^-3                                                                  (D)  -1.2 ´ 10^-2

Sol.         (A)

5.            The following carbohydrate is

                (A)  a ketohexose                                                            (B)  an aldohexose

                (C)  an a-furanose                                                          (D)  an a-pyranose

Sol.         (B)

               

(Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type)

                

6.            Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate ion involves

                (A)  3 electrons in neutral medium                           (B)  5 electrons in neutral medium

                (C)  3 electrons in alkaline medium                           (D)  5 electrons in acidic medium

Sol.         (A, D)

               

7.          For the first order reaction

                       

                (A)  the concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time.

                (B)  the half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature.

                (C)  the half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.

                (D)  the reaction proceeds to 99.6 % completion in eight half-life duration.

Sol.         (A, B, D)

(Integer Answer Type)

               

8.          Among the following, the number of compounds that can react with PCl₅ to give POCl₃ is O₂, CO₂, SO₂, H₂O, H₂SO₄, P₄O₁₀

Sol.         (4)

9.          The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO₃ required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 30 mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H₂O)₅Cl]Cl₂, as silver chloride is close to

Sol.         (6)

10.          In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl [K_sp(AgCl) = 1.6 ´ 10^-10], 0.1 mol of CuCl [K_sp(CuCl) = 1.0 ´ 10^-6] is added. The resultant concentration of Ag⁺ in the solution is 1.6 ´ 10^-x. The value of “x” is

Sol.         (7)

               

11.          The number of hexagonal faces that are present in a truncated octahedron is

Sol.         (8)

12.          The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on monochlorination of the following compound, is

                       

Sol.         (8)

               

13.          The total number of contribution structures showing hyperconjugation (involving C-H bonds) for the following carbocation is

                       

Sol.         (6)